Is (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n) Always Less Than Zero in the Binomial Theorem?

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The discussion centers on whether the expression (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n) is always less than zero in the context of the binomial theorem. Participants express that the validity of the statement depends on the values of a, b, and n, suggesting that numerical examples should be tested to identify counterexamples. It is noted that for certain values, such as a=1 and b=2, the inequality does not hold true. The conversation emphasizes the need for clarity in the original question and the conditions under which the inequality is being evaluated. Ultimately, the consensus is that the inequality is not universally valid.
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Thank you in advance, I need help proving or disproving this. In the binomial theorem, with a power (a+b)^n, I need to prove that a^n + b^n is greater than the rest, or in other words, (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n).
 
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eddybob123 said:
Thank you in advance, I need help proving or disproving this. In the binomial theorem, with a power (a+b)^n, I need to prove that a^n + b^n is greater than the rest, or in other words, (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n).



Uh? I think you forgot to add some info and/or to write some symbols, as it seems to the question doesn't make sense as it is.

DonAntonio
 
It depends on what you use for a,b, and n. In some cases, a^n + b^n will be greater than "the rest", in others, it won't.
 
I think you mean that you want to prove that (a+ b)^n- (a^n+ b^n) is positive. As Matt Benesi said, that depends upon what a and b are.
 
If the statement is suspicious, the first thing is to try a few numerical examples, to try to find a counterexample. Here is a hint: 1+1=2. :)

P.S.: My understanding is that the OP tries to prove or disprovea^n + b^n > (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n)
 
Dodo said:
If the statement is suspicious, the first thing is to try a few numerical examples, to try to find a counterexample. Here is a hint: 1+1=2. :)

P.S.: My understanding is that the OP tries to prove or disprovea^n + b^n > (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n)



Too many assumptions: shall we let the OP to tell us what he meant, please?

DonAntonio
 
Dodo said:
If the statement is suspicious, the first thing is to try a few numerical examples, to try to find a counterexample. Here is a hint: 1+1=2. :)

P.S.: My understanding is that the OP tries to prove or disprovea^n + b^n > (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n)

That is correct. It can also be assumed that a and b do not equal 1.
 
Dodo said:
If the statement is suspicious, the first thing is to try a few numerical examples, to try to find a counterexample. Here is a hint: 1+1=2. :)

P.S.: My understanding is that the OP tries to prove or disprovea^n + b^n > (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n)



Since the OP already wrote a post saying this is correct, this is the same as 2(a^n+b^n)>(a+b)^n which is greatly false, for example: for \,\,a=1\,,\,b=2\,,\,n=3\,\,,\,\,or\,\,a=2\,,\,b=3\,,\,n=4\,\, , and infinite counterexamples more.

DonAntonio
 
Question: can a and b be less than 1? Can they be negative?

Just some interesting cases: in all of these cases, x^n+y^n = "all the rest".

n=2 and a=b.

For n=3 we have x=-y, x=y\times\left[2-\sqrt{3}\right], x=y\times\left[2+\sqrt{3}\right].

Getting more complicated for n=4, just one example (out of 4):
x=\sqrt{2\,\sqrt{3}+3}\,y+\sqrt{3}\,y+y
or to preserve the format used above:
x=y\times\left[\sqrt{2\,\sqrt{3}+3}\,+\sqrt{3}\,+1\right]
 
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  • #10
a and b both must be integral and greater than 1. (a^n + b^n) must be greater than (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n) by obvious reasoning. First of all, the two terms, a^n and b^n, contains the highest power of the binomial expansion. The next highest power,n-1, should be greater than a^n or b^n only when n is greater than the following coefficient
 
  • #11
eddybob123 said:
a and b both must be integral and greater than 1. (a^n + b^n) must be greater than (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n) by obvious reasoning. First of all, the two terms, a^n and b^n, contains the highest power of the binomial expansion. The next highest power,n-1, should be greater than a^n or b^n only when n is greater than the following coefficient



Either you don't understand mathematically what is going on here or else you're misunderstanding and/or misreading big time

the inequality you want/must prove.

You wrote above "(a^n + b^n) must be greater than (a+b)^n - (a^n + b^n) by obvious reasoning", which means Gauss knows what, but

this inequality is \,\,a^n+b^n>(a+b)^n-(a^n+b^n)\Longleftrightarrow 2(a^n+b^n)>(a+b)^n\,\, , which already was show to be

false for lots and lots of options...Please do read and write carefully what you exactly want to achieve.

DonAntonio
 
  • #12
Please state exactly what you want to prove.
 

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