Extracting a Feynman diagram from a lagrangian?

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Afanthomme
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Hi everyone, sorry if this is not the right place to post that question but I'm new to this forum, i'll delete if necessary.

I am currently trying to learn QFT from Matthew Schwartz's "Quantum field theory and the standard model", quite clear during the first chapters, but i have been completely lost by the chapter about the feynman rules (can be found here : http://isites.harvard.edu/fs/docs/icb.topic1097985.files/I-7-Feynman.pdf )

I understand the first examples and the 2 derivations, but once he starts adding the derivative coupling (p.17) I'm completely lost : i don't understand how he gets the diagrams.
Is it that he decides to study 2->2 scattering of the first 2 fields through the third given the interaction?

If this is the case, why are there 4 diagrams instead of 1 after the integration by parts?

And one last question : why is there only the p2 momentum in the first amplitude? Since the two particles enter the first vertice (and exit the second), shouldn't they both give a factor?
 
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it's mostly the second problem, i really don't understand how to link a physical situation to the diagrams.
I also have a problem with the momentum factors due to particles entering/leaving a vertex (but i think this might become more understandable if i understand how to get the diagrams)
 
Well I'm not really sure that helps me...
When you say "allowed diagrams with the correct in and out states", you mean all diagrams with a given number of vertex that link the external points ( for example [itex]\phi_{pi}[/itex])?

Edit : in fact i understood what bothered me with the derivative.
 
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Afanthomme said:
When you say "allowed diagrams with the correct in and out states", you mean all diagrams with a given number of vertex that link the external points ( for example ϕpi \phi_{pi} )?


Yes. But you must also make sure that the external lines are for the correct fields ... You cannot make a Feynman diagram with an outgoing ##\phi_1## if your outgoing field should be a ##\phi_2## (unless there is also an outgoing ##\phi_1## of course, but you get my meaning).
 
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Ok i get that !
One last question: when asked to compute "the amplitude for a [itex]\phi->\phi \phi[/itex] decay" without further precision, how do we fix the external points?
Do we have to integrate over all possible momenta configurations?
 
Afanthomme said:
I understand the first examples and the 2 derivations, but once he starts adding the derivative coupling (p.17) I'm completely lost : i don't understand how he gets the diagrams.
Is it that he decides to study 2->2 scattering of the first 2 fields through the third given the interaction?


Yes, he chose ##1+2\rightarrow 1+2##, but you could work the amplitude for ##2+3 \rightarrow 2+3## for example.

If this is the case, why are there 4 diagrams instead of 1 after the integration by parts?

You have two interaction terms in the Lagrangian. There are 2 choices for which to use at each vertex, hence ##2\cdot 2 = 4## possibilities in all.

And one last question : why is there only the p2 momentum in the first amplitude? Since the two particles enter the first vertice (and exit the second), shouldn't they both give a factor?

I think you mentioned that you worked this out. In case it's not clear, it's because there is no derivative on the ##\phi_1## factor and we've specified that there is a ##1+2## in the initial state.
 
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Thank you very much, this really made it much clearer !