greypilgrim
- 583
- 45
Hi.
If a planar wire loop is moved through a homogeneous magnetic field (field lines perpendicular to the loop plane) with constant velocity and no rotation, Lorentz force will move some electrons to one side of the loop, creating a potential difference. But how does this work with Faraday's law
$$EMF=-\frac{d\Phi}{dt}$$
when neither the area enclosed by the loop nor its orientation nor the magnetic field are changing?
If a planar wire loop is moved through a homogeneous magnetic field (field lines perpendicular to the loop plane) with constant velocity and no rotation, Lorentz force will move some electrons to one side of the loop, creating a potential difference. But how does this work with Faraday's law
$$EMF=-\frac{d\Phi}{dt}$$
when neither the area enclosed by the loop nor its orientation nor the magnetic field are changing?