Fibonacci Sequence converge exercise

  • Thread starter Thread starter Calabi_Yau
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Exercise Sequence
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
2 replies · 2K views
Calabi_Yau
Messages
35
Reaction score
1
Let Fn denote the Fibonacci sequence.
un is the sequence given by: un= Fn+1/Fn. Show that mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex][itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex]mod(un-1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and therefore mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex] [itex]\frac{1}{\phi<sup>n-1</sup>}[/itex][/itex]mod(u1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and then conclude un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex]


I have tried with the identity [itex]\phi[/itex] = 1+ [itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex] if anything came to light... And I tried dividing the mods but it got even more complicated.

I can prove from the seocnd equation that un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex] as n-1 converges to infinity and thus 1/+inf =0, the right side becomes zero and we get mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex]0 which is the definition of convergence. But I can't get from the first equation to the second. I don't know how to pass from un-1 to u1 and the part of the [itex]\phi[/itex]n-1. Can someone shed some light on this issue?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Calabi_Yau said:
Let Fn denote the Fibonacci sequence.
un is the sequence given by: un= Fn+1/Fn. Show that mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex][itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex]mod(un-1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and therefore mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex] [itex]\frac{1}{\phi<sup>n-1</sup>}[/itex][/itex]mod(u1-[itex]\phi[/itex]) and then conclude un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex]


I have tried with the identity [itex]\phi[/itex] = 1+ [itex]\frac{1}{\phi}[/itex] if anything came to light... And I tried dividing the mods but it got even more complicated.

I can prove from the seocnd equation that un converges to [itex]\phi[/itex] as n-1 converges to infinity and thus 1/+inf =0, the right side becomes zero and we get mod(un - [itex]\phi[/itex]) [itex]\leq[/itex]0 which is the definition of convergence. But I can't get from the first equation to the second. I don't know how to pass from un-1 to u1 and the part of the [itex]\phi[/itex]n-1. Can someone shed some light on this issue?

We have
[tex] |u_n - \phi| \leq \frac{1}{\phi} |u_{n-1} - \phi| [/tex]
But since this is true for all n, we also have
[tex] |u_n - \phi| \leq \frac{1}{\phi} |u_{n-1} - \phi| \leq \frac{1}{\phi} \frac{1}{\phi} |u_{n-2} - \phi| = \frac{1}{\phi^2} |u_{n-2} - \phi|[/tex]
and we can clearly keep going, picking up a factor of [itex]\phi^{-1}[/itex] each time, until we have a multiple of [itex]|u_1 - \phi|[/itex] on the right.
 
Hmm, I didn't see that pattern. That is the same as making n-1=p and then doing the same for up and up-1.

Nice, thank you :)