Find the eigenvectors problem help

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the eigenvector problem for the differential equation $y' = \begin{pmatrix}4 & -1\\ 2 & 1\end{pmatrix}y$. The eigenvalues are determined to be $\lambda_1 = 3$ and $\lambda_2 = 2$, derived from the characteristic polynomial $\lambda^2 - 5\lambda + 6 = 0$. The corresponding eigenvectors are expressed as $\mathbf{y_1} = e^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix}$ and $\mathbf{y_2} = e^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}$. The general solution is formulated as $y = Ae^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix} + Be^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}$.

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Dustinsfl
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Just checking a solution.

$y' = \begin{pmatrix}4 & -1\\ 2 & 1\end{pmatrix}y $
$$
\lambda^2 - 5\lambda + 6 = (\lambda - 3)(\lambda - 2) = 0.
$$
So the eigenvalues are $\lambda_1 = 3$ and $\lambda_2 = 2$.
To find the eigenvectors, we must solve $(4 - \lambda)y_1 - y_2 = 0\iff y_2 = (4 - \lambda)y_1$.
Then
$$
y = \begin{pmatrix}1\\ 4 - \lambda\end{pmatrix}.
$$
Now $\mathbf{y_1} = e^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix}$ and $\mathbf{y_2} = e^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}$.
Thus, the solution is
$$
y = Ae^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix} + Be^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}.
$$
 
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dwsmith said:
Just checking a solution.

$y' = \begin{pmatrix}4 & -1\\ 2 & 1\end{pmatrix}y $
$$
\lambda^2 - 5\lambda + 6 = (\lambda - 3)(\lambda - 2) = 0.
$$
So the eigenvalues are $\lambda_1 = 3$ and $\lambda_2 = 2$.
To find the eigenvectors, we must solve $(4 - \lambda)y_1 - y_2 = 0\iff y_2 = (4 - \lambda)y_1$.
Then
$$
y = \begin{pmatrix}1\\ 4 - \lambda\end{pmatrix}.
$$
Now $\mathbf{y_1} = e^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix}$ and $\mathbf{y_2} = e^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}$.
Thus, the solution is
$$
y = Ae^{3t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 1\end{pmatrix} + Be^{2t}\begin{pmatrix}1\\ 2\end{pmatrix}.
$$

Yes it's correct. (Yes)
 
Last edited:

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