McAfee
- 96
- 1
Homework Statement
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I keep getting the answer 1- 96/4!*x^4. Can't find where I'm going wrong.
The discussion revolves around finding the Maclaurin polynomial of degree 5 for a function F(x), with participants attempting to clarify the correct evaluation of derivatives and the function's value at zero.
There is ongoing clarification regarding the values of F(0) and F'(0), with some participants suggesting that earlier calculations may have been misaligned. Guidance has been offered to reconsider the evaluation of derivatives and the implications of the integral's limits.
Participants note that the original poster's calculations may have been affected by a misunderstanding of the derivative count and the evaluation of the integral from 0 to 0, which is central to the problem.
Dick said:It's really hard to tell what you are doing from the blurry photograph. Can you explain? What are F(0), F'(0), F''(0) etc?
Dick said:Much clearer, thanks! Now I see where you are going wrong. f(0)=0, isn't it? It's f'(0) that is 1. And if you think about it, you didn't have to compute a lot of those terms involving high powers of x. But that's in retrospect.
McAfee said:I'm still not getting the correct answer.
I think f(0)=1. 0^4=0 0 times -4 equals 0 and then e to the power of 0 equals 1.
Dick said:Nooo. f(0) is the integral from 0 to 0 of e^(-4t^4). That's zero! f'(0) is exp(-4t^2) evaluated at t=0. Your derivative count is off by one!
McAfee said:So it should be x-(96/5!)*x^5 ?
Dick said:Yes, it should. But I don't like that '?' in the answer. You do see why, don't you?
McAfee said:Honestly, it is the right answer but I don't see why. Is there something special with finding a maclaurin polynomial of a function that includes e?
Dick said:No, nothing special about e. You don't agree f(0)=0? Suppose the function in your integral was just 1. What are f(0) and f'(0)?
McAfee said:f(0) would be 1 and f'(0) would be 0
Looking at it again is it because of the integral would be from 0 to 0
Dick said:If you are integrating 1 from 0 to x, then f(x)=x. I can say pretty definitely that f(0)=0. f'(0)=1.
McAfee said:Can it basically be a rule if you integrating from 0 to x, that the first term is 0 followed by the second term being x?
Dick said:You can't simplify it that much. Integrate 2 from 0 to x. The point of the example is just to show what you were doing wrong. f(0) is always zero, sure. f'(0) depends on the value of the integrand at 0. You just had your derivatives shifted by one. That's all.