Finding marginal distribution of 2d of probability density function

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on finding marginal distributions from a joint probability density function (PDF) defined as f(x, y) = k for |x| ≤ 0.5 and |y| ≤ 0.5. The constant k is determined to be 1, leading to the marginal distribution p(x). Participants clarify that integrating the joint PDF over the range of y is necessary to obtain the correct marginal distribution, which results in p(x) = 1 for -0.5 ≤ x ≤ 0.5. The conversation also addresses the concept of probability density, explaining that while densities can exceed 1, the integral must remain 1. Overall, the thread emphasizes the importance of proper integration to derive accurate marginal distributions.
Master1022
Messages
590
Reaction score
116
Homework Statement
Given the following probability distribution [itex] f(x, y) [/itex], find [itex] p(x) [/itex], the marginal distribution.
Relevant Equations
Marginal probability
Hi,

I have question about finding marginal distributions from 2d marginal pdfs that lead to the probabilities being greater than 1.

Question:
If we have the joint probability distribution ## f(x, y) = k \text{ for} |x| \leq 0.5 , |y| \leq 0.5 ## and 0 otherwise. I have tried to define a square with side lengths 1 which is centered at the origin.
1) Find the constant k
2) Find p(x), the marginal probability distribution

Attempt:
1) Using the law of total probability:
\iint f(x, y) dx dy = 1 \rightarrow k(1)(1) = 1 \rightarrow k = 1

2) Now when we find the marginal distribution p(x). Given the symmetry of the distribution, I thought this could also be done by folding the square over the x-axis and combining the probabilities. However, if we do this, then the distribution becomes a uniform distribution with p(x) = 2 for

-0.5 \leq x \leq 0.5. This doesn’t seem to be correct.

Would someone be able to point me the right direction of how to proceed? Thank you in advance
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Master1022 said:
I thought this could also be done by folding the square over the x-axis and combining the probabilities.
That would still give a joint distribution, but with a halved range for y.
You need to eliminate y by integrating across its range, keeping x constant.
In general, the bounds of y might depend on x, but not here.
 
Master1022 said:
2) Now when we find the marginal distribution p(x). Given the symmetry of the distribution, I thought this could also be done by folding the square over the x-axis and combining the probabilities.
Ok. But you still have to integrate this over the "folded" values of ##0 \lt y \lt 0.5##, so what does that give you? In fact, you didn't get any benefit from "folding" the original joint PDF. You could have just integrated ##f(x,y)=1## over the values of ##-0.5 \lt y \lt 0.5##.
However, if we do this, then the distribution becomes a uniform distribution with p(x) = 2 for

-0.5 \leq x \leq 0.5. This doesn’t seem to be correct.
It is not correct.
 
Thank you very much @haruspex and @FactChecker for your replies! I just have some follow up questions. I do see that I ought to have integrated.

haruspex said:
That would still give a joint distribution, but with a halved range for y.
Okay that makes more sense - compressing that y range from 0 to 0.5 would result in a uniform distribution of ## p(x) = 1 ## from ## -0.5 \leq x \leq 0.5 ##.

FactChecker said:
You could have just integrated ##f(x,y)=1## over the values of ##-0.5 \lt y \lt 0.5

haruspex said:
You need to eliminate y by integrating across its range, keeping x constant.
So if I integrate then ## p(x) = \int f(x, y) dy = \int_{-0.5}^{0.5} (1) dy = 1 ##. This agrees with the answer above of ## p(x) = 1 ## from ## -0.5 \leq x \leq 0.5 ##

haruspex said:
In general, the bounds of y might depend on x, but not here.
Okay thank you. So if we had a similar situation, but instead we had a circle (still centered) at the origin with radius 1/\sqrt{\pi} and we wanted to find the marginal distribution ## p(x) ##, then would have an integral that looked something like?
p(x) = \int f(x, y) dy = \int_{-\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi} - x^2}}^{\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi} - x^2}} (1) dy = 2 \sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi} - x^2}

However, this does seem to suggest a probability greater than ## 1 ## for ## x = 0 ##...
 
Master1022 said:
this does seem to suggest a probability greater than 1 for x=0...
Why is that a problem? Probability densities can be as high as you like.
 
  • Like
Likes Master1022, sysprog and FactChecker
Master1022 said:
However, this does seem to suggest a probability greater than ## 1 ## for ## x = 0 ##...
Not probability, which can never be greater than 1, but probability density, which can be as great as you like as long as its integral does not exceed 1.
 
  • Like
Likes Master1022, sysprog and Delta2
haruspex said:
Why is that a problem? Probability densities can be as high as you like.
FactChecker said:
Not probability, which can never be greater than 1, but probability density, which can be as great as you like as long as its integral does not exceed 1.
That is true. Thank you very much for the clarification!
 

Similar threads

Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
1K