Finite Set of Points in Complex Plane: $\{e^{n r \pi i}\}$

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves the set of points defined as \(\{ e^{n r \pi i}: n \in \textbf{Z} \}\) where \(r\) is a rational number. The original poster attempts to demonstrate that this set is finite, noting that the points lie on the unit circle in the complex plane.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of \(r\) being a fraction and consider how periodicity might lead to a finite number of distinct points. There are questions about the reasoning behind the size of the set being less than or equal to \(q\) and the role of integer values of \(n\) in this context.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered hints regarding the choice of \(r\) and the exploration of specific values of \(n\). There is an ongoing examination of the periodic nature of the exponential function and how it relates to the finiteness of the set.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through definitions and properties of complex exponentials, with some confusion about the behavior of the function for different integer values of \(n\). The discussion reflects a need for clarification on these mathematical concepts.

Somefantastik
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Homework Statement



[tex]\left\{ e^{n r \pi i}: n \in \textbf{Z} \right\} , r \in \textbf{Q}[/tex]

I'm trying to show that this set is finite.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Other than the fact that these points lie on the unit circle in the complex plane, I'm not sure where to start. Any direction would be helpful. clearly there's a way to choose r or n and use periodicity to show a finite set of points for this sets. But I'm not sure how r and n could be chosen.
 
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Since r is a fraction, you could write it as p/q.

Knowing that [itex]e^{2 \pi i} = 1[/itex], can you show that the set has size [itex]{} \le q[/itex]?
 
exp(2*pi*i)? from where did the 2 come?

I know that exp(n*pi*i) = 1 for n integer. if r= p/q, then exp(n*r*pi*i) = exp(2*p*pi*i) if n = 2*q... but no, I don't know why the set has size [tex]\leq q[/tex].
 
Last edited:
Somefantastik said:
exp(2*pi*i)? from where did the 2 come?

I know that exp(n*pi*i) = 1 for n integer.
No, that's not true. exp(n*pi*i) alternates between 1 and -1, depending on whether n is even or odd, respectively.

Somefantastik said:
if r= p/q, then exp(n*r*pi*i) = exp(2*p*pi*i) if n = 2*q... but no, I don't know why the set has size [tex]\leq q[/tex].
 
Mark44 said:
No, that's not true. exp(n*pi*i) alternates between 1 and -1, depending on whether n is even or odd, respectively.

well in this case n = 2q which is even right? And exp(2*p*pi*i) = 1 since 2*p is even as well since p is an integer. Later I can set n = 2q+1 to handle the odd cases, but I'm still trying to figure out why the set is finite. so I still need some help please.
 
Pick a value for r = p/q, then look at values of exp(n*r*pi*i) for n = 1, 2, 3, and so on. What is it that eventually happens at some value of n and thereafter?
 
Just a hint: start with r = 1/q, and plot [itex]e^{nr\pi i}[/itex] in the unit circle. What happens? How could you reduce the the cases where [itex]p\neq 1[/itex] to this one?
 
got it, thanks everybody.
 

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