Finitely Generated Abelian Groups

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Homework Statement



Let [tex]p[/tex] be prime and let [tex]b_1 ,...,b_k[/tex] be non-negative integers. Show that if :
[tex]G \simeq (\mathbb{Z} / p )^{b_1} \oplus ... \oplus (\mathbb{Z} / p^k ) ^ {b_k}[/tex]
then the integers [tex]b_i[/tex] are uniquely determined by G . (Hint: consider the kernel of the homomorphism [tex]f_i :G \to G[/tex] that is multiplication by [tex]p^i[/tex] . Show that [tex]f_1 , f_2[/tex] determine [tex]b_1[/tex].
Proceed similarly )


Homework Equations


The question, together with the theorem it should help me prove is attached (this question should help me prove the uniqueness part of the theorem)

The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried using the hint, and considering the homomorphism [tex]f_1 : G \to G[/tex] that is defined by [tex]f_1 (x ) = px[/tex] . Its kernel is [tex]ker f_1 = (\mathbb{Z}_p ) ^{b_1} \bigoplus (\mathbb{Z}_p) ^ {b_2} ...[/tex].
But how does it help me? Am I right in my calculation of the kernel? Hope someone will be able to help me

Thanks in advance !
 
Attachments
  • Printed textbook page with green highlighting showing Theorem 4.3, the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups, including parts (a), (b) and (c) and the decomposition T = T_1 ⊕ ... ⊕ T_k.
    DSC00042.JPG
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  • Printed textbook page showing exercise 4 on finitely generated abelian groups: part (a) on uniqueness of exponents b_i in a direct sum of Z/p^i powers, parts (b) through (d) generalizing and verifying the structure theorem.
    DSC00043.JPG
    36.4 KB · Views: 567


The hint is essentially leading you to consider a proof by induction on k. Notice that $$ \ker f_1 = (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_1} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_2} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p^2)^{b_3} \oplus \cdots = (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_1+b_2} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p^2)^{b_3} \oplus \cdots. $$
 


morphism said:
The hint is essentially leading you to consider a proof by induction on k. Notice that $$ \ker f_1 = (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_1} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_2} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p^2)^{b_3} \oplus \cdots = (\mathbb Z/p)^{b_1+b_2} \oplus (\mathbb Z/p^2)^{b_3} \oplus \cdots. $$

Can you please explain how did you get that this is the kernel?

Thanks a lot !
 


Well, if px=0 mod p^i, then p^i divides px, hence p^{i-1} divides x, i.e. x=0 mod p^i.