Xian'an Jin
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Is a continuous 1-1 and onto mapping from the Euclidean 3-space to itself a homeomorphism? i.e. Is its inverse also continous?
Xian'an Jin said:Is a continuous 1-1 and onto mapping from the Euclidean 3-space to itself a homeomorphism? i.e. Is its inverse also continous?
A function is bijective if it's 1-1 and onto. That's all - it has nothing to do with continuity. A homeomorphism is a continuous bijection whose inverse is continuous as well. A continuous bijection between topological spaces may as well have an inverse that isn't continuous.waht said:Yes, a function is bijective if it is a continuous 1-1 and onto mapping. If a function is bijective it's easy to show it has an inverse. A homeomorphism is basically a bijection between topological spaces. Since euclidean space is a topological space, it is a homeomorphism.
morphism said:A function is bijective if it's 1-1 and onto. That's all - it has nothing to do with continuity. A homeomorphism is a continuous bijection whose inverse is continuous as well. A continuous bijection between topological spaces may as well have an inverse that isn't continuous.
morphism said:In calculus it's usually proved that a continuous bijection f:R->R is a homeomorphism.
It usually comes before the inverse function theorem. It's probably stated as: a function that is continuous and 1-1 on an interval has a continuous inverse.DeadWolfe said:What theorem is this? I don't recall it from calculus.
Crosson said:In general a continuous bijection with a compact domain will have a continuous inverse.
mathwonk said:ok.
take a disc centered at p, and by jordan curve theorem, the circular boundary maps to a closed loop that has q in its interior.