Forces in inertial and non-inertial frame of reference

AI Thread Summary
In an inertial frame of reference, a man standing on a bus that begins to brake does not experience a force accelerating him forward; instead, he continues moving due to his initial motion. The force of friction opposes his motion but does not cause it. If the floor were slippery, reducing friction to zero, he would still move forward relative to the bus because no negative acceleration acts on him directly. The change in his position relative to the bus is a result of the bus's acceleration, not a force acting on him. This analysis clarifies that discussions of motion should focus on the inertial frame without conflating it with the bus's dynamics.
ChessEnthusiast
Messages
115
Reaction score
3
Imagine such situation:
A bus is moving at constant speed, a man is standing on the bus and is not holding to anything - he is simply standing.
Now, the bus starts breaking with constant negative acceleration and so the man will change his relative position due to the force of inertia.
Now, let's say we don't believe in the existence of the force of inertia and want to solve this problem in an inertial frame of reference.

The only force of contact between the man and the bus is the force of friction.
The man will move forward due to braking.
Therefore, is the force of friction the force causing his motion relative to the floor on the bus?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
ChessEnthusiast said:
Therefore, is the force of friction the force causing his motion relative to the floor on the bus?
What do you think would happen if we made the floor very slippery* so the friction force was 0? Would he still move relative to the bus or not?

*perhaps he should not remain standing for this portion of the experiment, it might be difficult to pass the ethics committee review!
 
  • Like
Likes ChessEnthusiast
Right, the force of friction was not the right guess.
However, there are no more forces in the x direction.

What about this analysis:
There is no force acelerating him towards the windshield, there is simply a force opposing his motion - the force of friction. The fact that this man starts moving is wrong - the man simply KEEPS moving because he was in motion and no negative acceleration was applied directly to him.
 
  • Like
Likes Dale
ChessEnthusiast said:
Right, the force of friction was not the right guess.
However, there are no more forces in the x direction.

What about this analysis:
There is no force acelerating him towards the windshield, there is simply a force opposing his motion - the force of friction. The fact that this man starts moving is wrong - the man simply KEEPS moving because he was in motion and no negative acceleration was applied directly to him.
Yes. Don't talk about "relative to the bus" if you decided to use the inertial frame.
 
  • Like
Likes jbriggs444 and ChessEnthusiast
ChessEnthusiast said:
The fact that this man starts moving is wrong - the man simply KEEPS moving because he was in motion and no negative acceleration was applied directly to him.
Yes, exactly. In the inertial frame the bus is accelerating, not the man. The change in relative position is due to the bus’ acceleration
 
  • Like
Likes ChessEnthusiast
Possibly useful:
Frames of Reference (1960) .. go to 13m27s
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
15
Views
3K
Replies
18
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
5K
Replies
13
Views
2K
Back
Top