DrChinese
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OK, first where we agree: We are specifying measurement of 1 & 4 on one basis, and measurement of 2 & 3 on some other unbiased basis.Morbert said:The correlation not present in the Ma-X experiment is correlation between Victor's Φ- result, and Alice's and Bob's measurement in the other two unbiased bases, H/V and +/-.
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In the Ma-X experiment, if* Victor observes Φ- (and he cannot ever observe Φ+) then he knows if Alice and Bob measured in the R/L basis, they will be correlated (trivially so, they must be LL).
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Now, it was you who turned me on to understanding Mjelva's logic. He says in that situation: Once you know the 1 & 4 outcomes (say up-up, per his 9A for example), then the 2 & 3 BSM (swap) is via selection where Φ- can result. That matches experiment and would, in fact have the effect of delivering the proper results for both BSMs and for SSMs. So that is not the point of disagreement.
And how that happens, according to the forward in time only view: If we know 1 & 4 are LL - or up-up in Mjelva's (9A) - then a Φ- BSM is compatible, but not a Φ+ BSM. But again: when we have the Ma-X version, we know 1 & 4 are LL (or up-up) just as before. Your problem is: A Φ- BSM is an actual compatible outcome, but equally frequent is a Φ+ BSM experimental outcome. This is diametrically opposed to what you assert, and is also opposed to what Mjelva claims in his (9A).
I am flat out saying that's what happens, and you are exactly incorrect as to what experiment shows. Because if it didn't, Type II polarization entangled PDC sources would not need to overlap the V and H cones as shown in the diagram. If they didn't overlap, it would be my Ma-X version. But we also know that doesn't lead to entanglement swapping. Surely you can agree with this point - there is nothing controversial about it. You need 1 & 2 to be initially polarization entangled (anti-correlated) to get entanglement swapping in this regime. That entangled state is qualitatively different than an initial state of up-down (or whatever). That accounts for the results being different; so the evolution cannot work as you describe.

So... that's our point of departure - and we should focus on this and nothing else for now. The state evolution cannot be as you describe below, because my Ma-X example follows that but yields the wrong prediction (using your logic). What I am applying to get that wrong prediction, verbatim:
$$\begin{eqnarray*}I_{14}\otimes U_{23}\ket{LL}_{14}\ket{RR}_{23} &=& \ket{LL}_{14}\otimes(U_{23}\ket{RR}_{23})\\
&=&\ket{LL}_{14}\otimes(U_{23}\ket{\phi^-}_{23} +iU_{23}\ket{\psi^+}_{23})/\sqrt{2}\end{eqnarray*}$$
Nope. Actual results include both Φ+ and Ψ- terms.
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