f(p) is the Fourier transform of f(x). Show that the Fourier Transform of eipox f(x) is f(p- p0).
I'm using these versions of the fourier transform:
The Attempt at a Solution
which is the same as:
but I don't know where to go from here. I think I need to make a substitution using the original transform as I don't need to solve the integral. My other idea is that I have nearly proved it so just need to state the theory as to why this proves it; however, I don't know what that theory would be.
Any help would be appreciated!