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## Homework Statement

f(p) is the Fourier transform of f(x). Show that the Fourier Transform of e

^{ipox}f(x) is

__f__(p- p

_{0}).

## Homework Equations

I'm using these versions of the fourier transform:

f(x)=1/√(2π)∫e

^{ixp}

__f__(p)dx

__f__(p)=1/√(2π)∫e

^{-ixp}f(x)dx

## The Attempt at a Solution

I have:

__f__(p)=1/√(2π)∫e

^{ix(po-p)}f(x)dx

which is the same as:

__f__(p)=1/√(2π)∫e

^{-ix(p-po)}f(x)dx

but I don't know where to go from here. I think I need to make a substitution using the original transform as I don't need to solve the integral. My other idea is that I have nearly proved it so just need to state the theory as to why this proves it; however, I don't know what that theory would be.

Any help would be appreciated!

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