Fourier Transforms - The Convolution Theorem.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Convolution Theorem in Fourier Transforms, specifically the equivalence of two formulations: F(h(x)⊗g(x))=H(k)G(k) and F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)⊗G(k). The user expresses confusion regarding their equivalence, referencing a problem from a textbook. The clarification provided indicates that H(k) and G(k) represent the Fourier Transforms of h(x) and g(x), respectively. A resource is suggested for further understanding, which provides a detailed argument for the theorem.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier Transforms and their notation
  • Familiarity with convolution operations in signal processing
  • Basic knowledge of mathematical functions and their transformations
  • Ability to interpret mathematical proofs and theorems
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Convolution Theorem in detail using "Fourier Analysis" textbooks
  • Explore the implications of the Convolution Theorem in signal processing applications
  • Learn about the properties of Fourier Transforms, focusing on linearity and time-shifting
  • Review the provided resource on convolution for a deeper mathematical argument
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in mathematics, physics, and engineering, particularly those involved in signal processing and analysis of Fourier Transforms.

binbagsss
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Ok so I've seen the convolution theorem written as:

F(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)

(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).

My book then does a problem in which is uses:

F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)

Where H(k)=F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),
and F represents a Fourier transform


My question
- I can't see how these are equivalent at all?

Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light !
 
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binbagsss:
Please post your math questions in one of the Math HW forums. This helps to organize the questions so that posters can receive appropriate responses to questions.
 
binbagsss said:
Ok so I've seen the convolution theorem written as:

F(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)

(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).

My book then does a problem in which is uses:

F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)

Where H(k)=F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),
and F represents a Fourier transform


My question
- I can't see how these are equivalent at all?

Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light !

Take a look at:
http://ugastro.berkeley.edu/infrared09/PDF-2009/convolution2.pdf

It gives an argument for the formula on the last page.
 

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