From an integral to a gamma to a series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a mathematical relation involving an integral and a series, specifically the equivalence of the integral of \(1/x^x\) from 0 to 1 and the infinite series \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1/n^n\). The subject area includes calculus and special functions, particularly Euler's Gamma function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss starting points such as expanding \(e^{-x \ln x}\) as a series and considering substitutions that would lead to a Gamma function representation. There are attempts to simplify the problem through variable changes and transformations.

Discussion Status

The discussion has progressed with participants sharing ideas and transformations. Some guidance has been offered regarding the expansion of the exponential function and the use of substitutions to reach the desired Gamma function form. There is an indication of progress, but no consensus has been reached on the final steps.

Contextual Notes

Participants express concerns about the complexity of expanding functions and the need to adhere to specific representations, such as Euler's Gamma function. The original poster's request for help suggests constraints in their understanding or approach to the problem.

deathquasar
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Homework Statement


Using Euler's Gamma and a proper substitution prove the relation above:
\int_0^1 1/x^x=\sum_{n=1}^\infty 1/n^n


Homework Equations


How to resolve this XD?


The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Maybe you should start by expanding x-x = e -x ln x as a series and then trying to think of a nice substitution.
 
but I've to pass through the euler's gamma representation, and expanding this function is quite horrible using taylor. I'll try anyway with your idea!,Ty!
 
Don't expand it into a full Taylor series, just the exponential. That should give you a clue what the substitution should be (remembering that you want a gamma function in the end).
 
ok, I expanded just the exp, and now I've this, (with some transformations) and quite looks like what I want.

\sum_1^\infty \frac{1}{n!}\int_0^\infty e^{-y(n+1)}y^n

but now?
 
Now do a small change of variables so you can write the integral as a gamma function
 
ok done :D thank you very much ^^
 

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