Fundamental Theorem of Calculus

Click For Summary
The discussion centers around the application of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTC) to evaluate the integral of sin(sqrt(x))/sqrt(x) from 0 to 49π². Participants clarify that the FTC enables the computation of definite integrals using antiderivatives, linking integration and differentiation. Historical context is provided, emphasizing the significance of this connection between seemingly different mathematical concepts. A substitution method is suggested for simplifying the integral in question. The FTC is deemed essential for efficient integral calculation, contrasting with the tedious nature of evaluating integrals from first principles.
ProBasket
Messages
140
Reaction score
0
Question :\int_0^{49pi^2} (sin(sqrt(x))/(sqrt(x)) dx


should i just solve it as a regular integral like usally and then do F(b) - F(a)? if so, why is it called Fundamental Theorem of Calculus if it's just like a regular integral?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The Fundamental Theorem of Calculus allows u to compute definite integrals of functions,using their antiderivatives.That's all to it...

Is your integral
\int_{0}^{49\pi^{2}} \frac{\sin\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x}} dx

??

If so,then a simple substitution will allow u to use the theorem.

Daniel.
 
The reason why it's called fundamental is mostly historical, but partly because it's quite remarkable that integration and differentiation are linked. On the face of it, the theory of derivatives is about limits of functions at a point, whereas integration is about the limits of sums, so it's not immediately obvious that the two are linked. The FTC shows that they are.

(pretty useful result to have - calculating integrals from first principles would be very tedious!)

Kane
 
Why is WHAT called "Fundamental Theorem of Calculus"? Certainly it's not this integral which is what your question seems to imply!

It is the "Fundamental Theorem of Calculus" that allows you to do "regular integrals".
 
Last edited by a moderator:
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
832
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
11
Views
1K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
542
  • · Replies 58 ·
2
Replies
58
Views
3K