Gauge Invariance (QED): How Does the Statement Hold?

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PhyAmateur
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My book says that in this case $$e^+e^- \rightarrow \gamma \gamma $$ gauge invariance requires that $$k_{1\nu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})=0=k_{2\mu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})$$ Please see attachment. My question is how does this statement hold?
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But the author insisted that these conditions are met although the quantities in the equations k1ν(Aμν+A~μν)=0=k2μ(Aμν+A~μν) each separately are all different from zero. Why would he say that if it is already a consequence of ward identity? @vanhees71
 
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How does this have to do with my question? I can't relate.
 
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If you write out the expressions for ##A^{\mu\nu}## and ##\tilde{A}^{\mu\nu}## that you get from computing these diagrams, you will find that ##k_{1\nu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})=0## and ##k_{2\mu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})=0##. So, while this can be predicted from gauge invariance, it is also the result of doing the explicit calculation.
 
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Are you telling me that Ward Takashi holds for the amplitude and not necessarily for each of the Feynman diagrams whose sum is the amplitude? @vanhees71
 
Yes, that's it. The same is true for other symmetries, like charge conjugation symmetry, which implies that n-photon vertices with an odd number of photons must vanish. This also holds true only for the sum at a given loop order. Take, e.g., the one-loop triangle diagrams. You need to add both contibutions (which are different only by the orientation of the electron-positron loop making up the triangle).