General Solution to time independent schrodinger equation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the general solution to the time-independent Schrödinger equation for an infinite square well, specifically in the form of trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the transition from exponential forms of solutions to trigonometric forms, questioning the validity of their transformations and the labeling of constants.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying the relationships between different forms of the solution and the constants involved. Some have identified potential mistakes in their reasoning and are seeking to correct their approach.

Contextual Notes

There is confusion regarding the labeling of integration constants, which has led to misunderstandings in the transformation of the solution forms. Participants are encouraged to reconsider their variable assignments to avoid further confusion.

hhhmortal
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Homework Statement



This is really a maths problem I'm having.

I need to get the general solution for the infinite square well in the form:

u = A cos(kx) + B sin(kx)



I found the general solution to be:

u = A exp(ikx) + B exp(-ikx)

Using Euler's formula:

exp(ikx) = cos(kx) + isin (kx)
exp(-ikx) = cos(kx) - isin(kx)

Hence, general solution becomes :

u = A cos(kx) + Bcos(kx)

What am I missing out?
 
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Show how you got from the exponential form to the double cosine form. I have a feeling you think that A sin x- B sin x=0.
 
Yes you're right! That was a mistake I've made:

Instead I get:

u = (A + B) cos(kx) + (A - B) i sin(kx)

I still don't know how to get the correct form from this..
 
The problem you're having is that you labeled the integration constants for both types of solutions the same. This causes confusion.

Instead use u=C e^{ikx}+De^{-ikx} and find a relation between C,D and A,B (just relabel A and B in post #3).
 
Last edited:
Cyosis said:
The problem you're having is that you labeled the integration constants for both types of solutions the same. This causes confusion.

Instead use u=C e^{ikx}+De^{-ikx} and find a relation between C,D and A,B (just relabel A and B in post #3).

I'm not sure what you mean. How would changing A & B to C & D make a difference?
 
Because the A in your first equation is not necessarily the same as the A in your second equation (post #1). Using the same name for different constants gets you into trouble. Just use the u given in my post with constants C and D and find a relation between those and A and B.
 
Cyosis said:
Because the A in your first equation is not necessarily the same as the A in your second equation (post #1). Using the same name for different constants gets you into trouble. Just use the u given in my post with constants C and D and find a relation between those and A and B.

Forgive me for asking again. I seem to be confused over something so simple.

I did as you said..I think and got:

C exp(ikx) = A cos(kx) + iB sin(kx)

D exp(-ikx) = A cos(kx) + iB sin(kx)
 
What people are trying to tell you is that Ae^{ikx}+Be^{-ikx} \ne A\cos(kx)+B\sin(kx). You can't get one from the other because they're not equal to each other. You can, however, show that Ce^{ikx}+De^{-ikx} = A\cos(kx)+B\sin(kx) if you choose A and B correctly. Remember that C and D are arbitrary constants. Any combination of them will just be another arbitrary constant.
 
vela said:
What people are trying to tell you is that Ae^{ikx}+Be^{-ikx} \ne A\cos(kx)+B\sin(kx). You can't get one from the other because they're not equal to each other. You can, however, show that Ce^{ikx}+De^{-ikx} = A\cos(kx)+B\sin(kx) if you choose A and B correctly. Remember that C and D are arbitrary constants. Any combination of them will just be another arbitrary constant.

My previous post was wrong, sorry, is it simply:

C exp(ikx) = C cos(kx) + iC sin(kx)

D exp(-ikx) = D cos(kx) - iD sin(kx)

So,

C+D = A

(iC - iD) = B


Therefore:

C exp(ikx) + D exp(-ikx) = A cos(kx) + B sin(kx)
 
  • #10
Yup, you got it.
 
  • #11
Thanks for the patience everyone
 

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