I realized that a few minutes after I posted it, my bad!
So we've got f_{x_k}=kx_x.
The function f described by this set of partial derivatives should be in the form f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n), right? So I run into a bit of a snag when we integrate that partial.
If f_{x_1} = x_1, then
f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{1}{2}x_1^2 + g(x_2, ... x_n)
If this is correct, then moving on:
f_{x_2}=g_{x_2}(x_2, x_3, ... , x_n)
Implying:
g_{x_2}(x_2, x_3, ... , x_n) = 2x_2, right? And that:
g(x_2, x_3, ..., x_n) = x_2^2 + h(x_3, x_4, ... , x_n)
Well, I did this process over a few times and I'm reaching a definite pattern here, that shows:
f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{1}{2}x_1^2 + x_2^2 + \frac{3}{2}x_3^2 + 2x_3^2 + j(x_5, x_6, ... , x_n).
Which seems to imply that
f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{k}{2}x_k^2 + some function of g. Of course, I realize I would have arrived at this exact expression if I had integrated the beginning expression, I just wanted to see where this process would lead me.
Now, an issue arises with the function of g afterwards. Should it be:
f(x_1, x_2, ... , x_n) = \frac{k}{2}x_k^2 + g(x_{k+1}, x_{k+2}, ... , x_n)?
Have we arrived at the solution or is there some compact way to write the function of g? Or have I done it all wrong completely? :P Thanks!