Proving Inequality: Expert Assistance for Your Inequality Proof

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    Inequality Proof
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The discussion focuses on proving a specific inequality involving integrals of a probability density function p(y). The inequality is expressed in terms of two integrals raised to different powers, with the condition that p(y) is positive and integrates to one. It is noted that when n equals 2, both sides of the inequality are equal, indicating that the inequality does not hold for this value of n. Participants are seeking expert assistance to validate the inequality for integer values of n greater than or equal to 2. The main goal is to establish the validity of the inequality under the given conditions.
Aaron792
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Can anyone help me prove this inequality?
See upload~
 

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Prove inequality
\begin{equation}<br /> \int^\infty_0y^\frac{2(n-1)}{n}p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y\Big(\int^\infty_0y^\frac{1}{n}p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y\Big)^2&gt;\int^\infty_0y^\frac{2}{n}p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y\Big(\int^\infty_0y^\frac{(n-1)}{n}p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y\Big)^2<br /> \nonumber<br /> \end{equation}

p(y)&gt;0 and \int^\infty_0p(y)\,\mathrm{d}y=1 for any y

n is an integer and n\ge2$
 
When n = 2, both of those inequalities are equal, thus the inequality isn't true for n = 2.
 

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