Help Solve Physics Problem: Lamp Moving at v=c/4

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The discussion centers on a physics problem involving a lamp emitting light while moving at a velocity of c/4. The key question is determining the angle of the light cone from the perspective of a stationary observer. Participants clarify that while the lamp emits light in all directions, the observed angle changes due to relativistic effects, specifically "aberration." The expected answer for the angle of the light cone is 152 degrees, although the derivation of this result is questioned. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding relativistic aberration in solving such problems.
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Hello, I need help with this problem. In 2D we have a lamp that emits light in 360 degrees around itself while stationary. Than it starts moving at velocity of c/4 what is the degree of the cone in which the light now emits to ? I hope you understand, like the angle of the field where the light falls from the perspetive of observer who is stationary. I don't know how to solve it, does anebody know ?
IMG_20160426_215423.jpg

Thank you Radim
 
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Consider a photon emitted directly to the left when the source is stationary. In what direction will it travel when the source is moving?
 
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Light is still being emitted in all directions, with Doppler shifts.
 
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Yes you are correct, I misunderstood the problem, it made no sense to me that the light would not be emitted to the left from the stationary observers perspective. They are asking for angle of beams of photons that were emitted perpendicular on the vector of velocity (but they won´t be perpendicular while it is moving) The answer is supposed to be 152 degrees, but I don't know how they got this result.
 

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The phenomenon is called "aberration", and occurs in both Newtonian and relativistic physics. Google for relativistic aberration.
 
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IMG_20160427_005205.jpg

So could anyone confirm me that this approach is correct ?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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