I was assigned this problem in class. My instructor said it was a very popular theorem, but I cannot find it in my book or online. I am clueless on what to do. I would appreciate the help. Let f(x) be bounded and integrable on [a, b]. Assume that g(x) differs from f(x) on only finitely many points in the domain. Show that g(x) is integrable. Moreover, show that ∫f(x)dx = ∫g(x)dx (Both integrals are from b to a).