Help with simplifying an integral

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The discussion centers on the simplification of an integral involving the variable "v" in equation (1.8). Participants clarify that changing variables from ##u+v## to ##u## and ##u-v## to ##u## is essential for obtaining the third line of equation (1.8). The constant nature of "v" with respect to the integration variable is emphasized, along with the importance of recognizing that the integral of an even function leads to a simplified evaluation. Concerns are raised about the implications of "v" potentially becoming imaginary, particularly regarding the limits of the integral.

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Stuck on some algebra within an integral.
I am not seeing how the v goes away in the third equal sign of equation (1.8). It seems to be that it must be cos(z*sinh(u+v)), not cos(z*sinh(u)).
In the defined equations (1.7), the variable "v" can become imaginary, so a simple change of variables would change the integration sign by adding an imaginary term - not what occurs in (1.8). Any idea on how to get the third line of (1.8)?

Thanks for any insight!
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In order to get the third line in Eq. (1.8) change variables ##u+v\mapsto u## and ##u-v\mapsto u##.
Since ##v## is constant with respect to the integration varible ##du = d(u\pm v)##, and also don't forget that integral of an even function ##f(x)=f(-x)## leads to ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)dx= 2\int_0^a f(x)dx##.
 
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MathematicalPhysicist said:
In order to get the third line in Eq. (1.8) change variables ##u+v\mapsto u## and ##u-v\mapsto u##.
Since ##v## is constant with respect to the integration varible ##du = d(u\pm v)##, and also don't forget that integral of an even function ##f(x)=f(-x)## leads to ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)dx= 2\int_0^a f(x)dx##.

But, in this case, doesn’t it matter than ##v## can potentially become an imaginary number, and the limits of the integral would no longer be just infinity? We would get an added imaginary term to the limit, e.g. ##\infty + 2\pi i##.

More explicitly, ##v= arcsinh(\frac{mc^{2}t}{hz}),## where ##z## is given in Eq.(1.7). We see that inside the light cone, ##z## becomes imaginary. So ##v## would also become imaginary, in this case. When performing the change of variables, the integration bound would now pick up an additional imaginary piece. This is what I am confused about - how can it still just be ##\infty##?
 
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u and v are both real and v is constant as for integration of u.
\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} du = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} d(u+v)
or so.
 
MathematicalPhysicist said:
In order to get the third line in Eq. (1.8) change variables ##u+v\mapsto u## and ##u-v\mapsto u##.
Since ##v## is constant with respect to the integration varible ##du = d(u\pm v)##, and also don't forget that integral of an even function ##f(x)=f(-x)## leads to ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)dx= 2\int_0^a f(x)dx##.
anuttarasammyak said:
u and v are both real and v is constant as for integration of u.
\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} du = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} d(u+v)
or so.
But we see in Eq.(1.7), that inside the light cone, ##v## can become imaginary.
 
It seems that (1.8) is for real z with u and v real, and (1.9) is for imaginary z.
 
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TroyElliott said:
But we see in Eq.(1.7), that inside the light cone, ##v## can become imaginary.
Such a calculation is done in a course in complex analysis; I don't recall the details, sorry.
 
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