phypar
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In the standard QFT textbook, the Hermitian conjugate of a Dirac field bilinear
\bar\psi_1\gamma^\mu \psi_2 is \bar\psi_2\gamma^\mu \psi_1.
Here is the question, why there is not an extra minus sign coming from the anti-symmetry of fermion fields?
\bar\psi_1\gamma^\mu \psi_2 is \bar\psi_2\gamma^\mu \psi_1.
Here is the question, why there is not an extra minus sign coming from the anti-symmetry of fermion fields?