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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hey ,if we need to calculate time dilation with an accelerating frame of reference,cant we simply use the lorentz trasnformations and use instataneous velocity in place of relative velocity?

Alsousing einsteins derivation of the lorentz transformations we get 2ct=0

Now how do we explain this?

Alsousing einsteins derivation of the lorentz transformations we get 2ct=0

Now how do we explain this?