Hi all,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let λ>0 and define an equivalence relation on ℝ^{n}-{0} by

(x~y) [itex]\Leftrightarrow[/itex] (there is an s[itex]\in[/itex]Z such that λ^{s}x=y)

I would like to know what the quotient space ℝ^{n}-{0}/~ looks like. I know that it is a set of equivalence classes.

To understand it better I wanted to see how it works for n=1. In that case I found that for all a[itex]\in[/itex] (1, λ] there is an equivalence class [a]. And for b[itex]\in[/itex] (λ, λ^{2}] we have b=rλ where 1< r ≤ λ. But this means that b~r. So b[itex]\in[/itex][r] and we know that r[itex]\in[/itex] (1, λ]. The same idea holds for elements from the intervals (λ^{i}, λ^{i+1}]. Hence every element from (1, ∞) will be in an equivalence class which has a representative in (1, λ]. Am I seeing this correct?

But how can I specify the equivalence classes of the rest of the elements of ℝ-{0}? (since λ > 1)

The goal is, (eventually) to show that the quotientspace ℝ^{n}-{0}/~ is homeomorphic to S^{1}x S^{n-1}.

I would really appreciate any help or hints, to make me understand better what they mean by quotientspace.

Kind regards,

J.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Hi all,Let λ>0 and define an equivalence relation on

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**