- 28

- 0

My question is something we discussed during class today.

When betting on a horse before a horse race - say, a race of 5 horses, the odds ARE NOT 1/5 because the odds are not equal (eg. one horse may be faster).

So, what about if you placed a bet AFTER the race, assuming you don't know anything about any of the horses nor the outcome?

The way I think about this is that before the race, the horses had different chances of winning - tilting the possibility of winning or losing, and that after the race, although they HAD altering chances, the new 'guessing' chance is now indeed 1/5, is it not?

I'm not sure what to think, so I hope you guys can help :)