- #1
FilupSmith
- 28
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So, today we were studying the introduction of probability. For me it is fairly simple (for now).
My question is something we discussed during class today.
When betting on a horse before a horse race - say, a race of 5 horses, the odds ARE NOT 1/5 because the odds are not equal (eg. one horse may be faster).
So, what about if you placed a bet AFTER the race, assuming you don't know anything about any of the horses nor the outcome?
The way I think about this is that before the race, the horses had different chances of winning - tilting the possibility of winning or losing, and that after the race, although they HAD altering chances, the new 'guessing' chance is now indeed 1/5, is it not?
I'm not sure what to think, so I hope you guys can help :)
My question is something we discussed during class today.
When betting on a horse before a horse race - say, a race of 5 horses, the odds ARE NOT 1/5 because the odds are not equal (eg. one horse may be faster).
So, what about if you placed a bet AFTER the race, assuming you don't know anything about any of the horses nor the outcome?
The way I think about this is that before the race, the horses had different chances of winning - tilting the possibility of winning or losing, and that after the race, although they HAD altering chances, the new 'guessing' chance is now indeed 1/5, is it not?
I'm not sure what to think, so I hope you guys can help :)