As magnets have two poles, when i place two bar magnets together with opposite poles facing each other besides the two opposite poles attracting each other will the north and south pole on one magnet repel the north and south pole respectively?
none that i have heard of
The Attempt at a Solution
According to this post i found on reddit: http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/17hit9/why_can_there_be_attraction/c85qet6 there won't be any repulsion as the magnetic field is 'combined' together. So we cannot use http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/17hit9/why_can_there_be_attraction/c85jt4i to calculate the attraction.
However, I sort of disagree with that as polarized metal objects also have a similar electric field which combines as well http://ars.els-cdn.com/content/image/1-s2.0-S1569441012000624-gr2.jpg while in this situation we still use Coulomb's Law to find out the net force acting on the various object.
Can someone clear up this misconception? Thanks for the help :)