How Do Bar Magnets Create Zero Magnetic Field at Point P?

  • #1
motleycat
40
0
1. The magnetic field at point P due to a magnetic source S1 is represented by ==>. Can a bar magnet S2 be brought close to P so that the total magnetic field at P due to S1 and S2 is zero? Explain your answer.2. None3. Yes, this is possible if both fields at point P have the same magnitude but a different direction. When two bar magnets are held vis-à-vis to each other (one’s north pole facing the other’s south pole) repulsion occurs between them. In the exact centre between those two poles of the two bar magnets a singular point exists where the magnetic field force equals 0.
Am I on the right track?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Probably. But this assumes that the second source is sufficiently strong to cancel out the first one with a field equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
 
  • Like
Likes motleycat
  • #3
Dr. Courtney said:
Probably. But this assumes that the second source is sufficiently strong to cancel out the first one with a field equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

The second source is just another bar magnet, why would they differ?
 
  • #4
motleycat said:
The second source is just another bar magnet, why would they differ?

Think like a scientist. If the statement of the question does not say they are identical, then why assume that they are?
 
  • Like
Likes motleycat
  • #5
Dr. Courtney said:
Think like a scientist. If the statement of the question does not say they are identical, then why assume that they are?

I have just changed my answer. Does it look better now?

Thank you for your help!
 

Similar threads

Back
Top