How can I diagonalize matrices A and B to solve the matrix exponential problem?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the diagonalization of matrices A and B, specifically in the context of calculating the matrix exponential exp(A)exp(B). The matrices in question are A = [1,1;0,0] and B = [1,-1;0,0]. Participants are exploring the implications of the eigenvalues and characteristic polynomials of these matrices on their diagonalizability.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the characteristic polynomials of matrices A and B, noting discrepancies in eigenvalue calculations. Some express confusion about the diagonalization process and the implications of having repeated eigenvalues. Others suggest that diagonalization may not be necessary for solving the problem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning each other's calculations of eigenvalues and characteristic polynomials. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the characteristic polynomial to simplify calculations, but no consensus has been reached on the diagonalizability of the matrices.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the information they can share. There is also a focus on understanding the properties of Jordan form matrices and their implications for eigenvalues.

JamesGoh
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Homework Statement



Given matrix A= [1,1;0,0] and matrix B = [1,-1;0,0]

n.b. the semicolon separates the matrix rows

find exp(A)exp(B)



Homework Equations



[itex]exp^{A}=\sum\frac{A^{n}}{n!}=I + A + \frac{A^{2}}{2} + \frac{A^{3}}{6} + ... + \frac{A^{n}}{n!}[/itex]

for n= 0 to infinity

The Attempt at a Solution



The answer the tutor give is the following matrix

exp(A).exp(B) = [e^2,-(e-1)^2 ; 0,1]

this would imply that A and B are diagonalisable (since they need to be in order to get the form of the answer)

However, if I worked out the characteristic ppolynomial of A and B, I would only get one eigenvalue, not two distinct eigenvalues which rules out any chance of diagaonlisation

Is there a way to diagaonlise A and B ?
 
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JamesGoh said:

Homework Statement



Given matrix A= [1,1;0,0] and matrix B = [1,-1;0,0]

n.b. the semicolon separates the matrix rows

find exp(A)exp(B)



Homework Equations



[itex]exp^{A}=\sum\frac{A^{n}}{n!}=I + A + \frac{A^{2}}{2} + \frac{A^{3}}{6} + ... + \frac{A^{n}}{n!}[/itex]

for n= 0 to infinity

The Attempt at a Solution



The answer the tutor give is the following matrix

exp(A).exp(B) = [e^2,-(e-1)^2 ; 0,1]

this would imply that A and B are diagonalisable (since they need to be in order to get the form of the answer)

However, if I worked out the characteristic ppolynomial of A and B, I would only get one eigenvalue, not two distinct eigenvalues which rules out any chance of diagaonlisation
I get two eigenvalues for each matrix, so I don't know what you did that you came up with only one apiece.
JamesGoh said:
Is there a way to diagaonlise A and B ?
 
You can also do this problem without diagonalizing either matrix. Use your relevant equation, which should be slightly amended. It's not a finite sum.
[tex]exp^{A}=\sum\frac{A^{n}}{n!}=I + A + \frac{A^{2}}{2} + \frac{A^{3}}{6} + ... + \frac{A^{n}}{n!} + ...[/tex]
 
A standard result for an nxn matrix with all eigenvalues different is: if r_1, r_2,...,r_n are the eigenvalues, there exist matrices E_1,E_2,...,E_n such that for any analytic function f(x) = sum c_n x^n (with radius of convergence containing all the r_j) then f(A) = c_0*I + c_1*A + c_2*A^2 + ... = sum_j f(r_j)* E_j . Here the E_j are the same for any f, so cn be found, for example, by looking at f(x) = 1 = x^0, f(x) = x, f(x) = x^2, etc. Having the E_j, now use f(x) = exp(x) to get exp(A).

For a 2x2 matrix with eigenvalues 'a' and 'b' we have I = E1 + E2, which comes from using f(x) = 1. Similarly, A = a*E1 + b*E2 (using f(x) = x).

RGV
 
Mark44 said:
I get two eigenvalues for each matrix, so I don't know what you did that you came up with only one apiece.

What was your characteristic polynomial for A ? What eigenvalues did you get for A ?


Also, what char. polynomial and eigenvalues did you get for B ?
 
Those are both "Jordan form" matrices so the numbers on the diagonal are the eigenvalues.
 
JamesGoh said:
What was your characteristic polynomial for A ? What eigenvalues did you get for A ?

Also, what char. polynomial and eigenvalues did you get for B ?
What did you get?
 
vela said:
What did you get?

I got 0 and 1 as the eigenvalues for both matrix A and Matrix B.

The characteristic polynomial I got for A was [itex]λ^{2}-λ[/itex]

Similary, my char. polynomial for B is [itex]λ^{2}-λ[/itex]
 
So you got two distinct eigenvalues, and you can diagonalize them both.

As Mark mentioned, you can calculate eA and eB without diagonalizing though. A matrix satisfies its characteristic polynomial, so A2-A=0. Using that fact, you can easily simplify the series.
 
  • #10
Thanks for that. I was asking in the first placecause I knew the diagonal form of both A and B would be

[ 0, 1 ; 0, 0]

which is nowhere close to the tutor's answer
 
  • #11
That's not the diagonal form of either A or B.

Also, your tutor calculated exp(A)exp(B), which isn't the diagonalization of A or B.
 
  • #12
but doesn't the Diagonal matrix contain the eigenvalues down the main diagonal and 0's elsewhere ?

what don't I understand ?
 
  • #13
The matrix you wrote was
\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}which isn't diagonal.
 

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