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How can it's solve using Leibniz Rule or other rule

  1. Jun 9, 2015 #1
    • Member warned to not post homework questions in this forum section
    Screenshot_2015_06_09_10_57_19.png
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 9, 2015 #2

    fzero

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    I would suggest using integration by parts and induction.
     
  4. Jun 9, 2015 #3
    i try. bt connot solve it. can you give me useful link or suggestion
     
  5. Jun 9, 2015 #4

    fzero

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    Can you work out the case when ##m=1##?
     
  6. Jun 9, 2015 #5
    yes. when m=1 then value is = -1/(p+1)^2
     
  7. Jun 9, 2015 #6

    fzero

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    Did you use the formula or integration by parts? Try the same kind of integration by parts when ##m=k+1##. You should be able to relate one of the terms to the integral for the case ##m=k##. This should suggest how to organize the proof by induction.
     
  8. Jun 9, 2015 #7
    your concept is very useful. thank you. i solve it. thank you very much again.
     
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