# How can it's solve using Leibniz Rule or other rule

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1. Jun 9, 2015

### Md. Abde Mannaf

• Member warned to not post homework questions in this forum section

2. Jun 9, 2015

### fzero

I would suggest using integration by parts and induction.

3. Jun 9, 2015

### Md. Abde Mannaf

i try. bt connot solve it. can you give me useful link or suggestion

4. Jun 9, 2015

### fzero

Can you work out the case when $m=1$?

5. Jun 9, 2015

### Md. Abde Mannaf

yes. when m=1 then value is = -1/(p+1)^2

6. Jun 9, 2015

### fzero

Did you use the formula or integration by parts? Try the same kind of integration by parts when $m=k+1$. You should be able to relate one of the terms to the integral for the case $m=k$. This should suggest how to organize the proof by induction.

7. Jun 9, 2015

### Md. Abde Mannaf

your concept is very useful. thank you. i solve it. thank you very much again.