How can it's solve using Leibniz Rule or other rule

[Md. Abde Mannaf]

 

[fzero]

I would suggest using integration by parts and induction.

 

[Md. Abde Mannaf]

I would suggest using integration by parts and induction.

i try. bt connot solve it. can you give me useful link or suggestion

 

[fzero]

Can you work out the case when $m=1$?

 

[Md. Abde Mannaf]

Can you work out the case when $m=1$?

yes. when m=1 then value is = -1/(p+1)^2

 

[fzero]

Did you use the formula or integration by parts? Try the same kind of integration by parts when $m=k+1$. You should be able to relate one of the terms to the integral for the case $m=k$. This should suggest how to organize the proof by induction.

 

[Md. Abde Mannaf]

Did you use the formula or integration by parts? Try the same kind of integration by parts when $m=k+1$. You should be able to relate one of the terms to the integral for the case $m=k$. This should suggest how to organize the proof by induction.

your concept is very useful. thank you. i solve it. thank you very much again.