As we all know, for the most part, the kinetic friction force is, for the most part, constant. After moving my cup across my table, this thought crossed my mind. If I move my cup across the table with a constant speed, then the force I'm applying must be equal to the kinetic friction force. Let's say I apply a stronger force to get it at a constant speed that is faster than the other speed. I was pushing a force higher than the kinetic friction force. In that case, the cup should be accelerating instead of remaining in equilibrium. I suspect I've fallen for a common misconception of sorts. Can someone explain this? Thanks!