How Can You Solve Limit Problems Without Graphing?

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    Calc 1 Limit
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around limit problems in calculus, specifically evaluating limits as x approaches zero for the functions 1/x and sin(1/x) without the aid of graphing tools.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the behavior of the function 1/x as x approaches zero, discussing the implications of approaching from both the positive and negative sides. The original poster seeks to understand the logic behind limits without graphing. Another participant introduces the concept of oscillation in the function sin(1/x) as x approaches zero, raising questions about the limit's existence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the behavior of the functions involved and exploring the concept of limits. There is an acknowledgment of the complexity of the sin(1/x) limit, and some guidance is offered regarding the use of sequences to analyze limits.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the challenge of understanding limits without visual aids, and there is a mention of a theorem related to sequences and limits that may require further exploration.

hayesk85
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limit problem - calc 1 please see reply

Homework Statement



limx->0 1/x



The Attempt at a Solution



I know this is easy if you graph it on the calculator, but I want to know the logic behind the getting the answer without graphing it.

Thank you
 
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Well, plug in values less than 1 and more than -1 and you'll see that you get closer and closer to positive or negative infinity. For example 1/.1 = 10, 1/-.1 = -10, 1/.01 = 100, 1/-.01 = -100.

Now if you know enough about limits, then you'll realize that:

\lim_{x\rightarrow0} \frac{1}{x}

does not exist because:

\lim_{x\rightarrow0^+} \frac{1}{x} does not equal \lim_{x\rightarrow0^-} \frac{1}{x}
 
Sorry, I meant:

limx->0 sin(1/x)

Now its harder!
 
Well technically, you can look at it almost the same way as I described above. There is one other thing to notice though. Remember as x gets closer and closer to zero, then 1/x gets infinitely larger. Now what if 1/x was equal to \pi/2 then the sin would be 1. Now what if x got closer to zero and 1/x was equal to 3\pi/2, then the sin would -1. So, this means as you keep getting closer and closer to zero (from both sides), each side oscillates an infinite amount of times (alternating oscillations on each side of the y-axis of course because of negative and positive x's resulting in negative and positive sin's).

I hope that clears your reasoning up a little bit. At least that is how I like to look at it, but that's my first time ever explaining it to someone, so I'm sorry if it sounds a bit confusing.
 
Expanding on what chislam has said, you may or may not be aware of the theorom stating that using any sequence of x that tends to 0, (xn), then if the limit exists f((xn)) must converge to this limit for all subsequences. I will leave it to you to find the required subsequences to prove the limit doesn't exist.
 

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