- #1
kof9595995
- 679
- 2
To resolve Gibbs paradox, Gibbs himself came up the idea to treat particles as indistinguishable. Since by then QM hadn't been discovered, how did Gibbs argue that particles indistinguishable? In any classical sense, particles should be distinguishable, if Gibbs did it only to resolve the paradox, wouldn't it be ad hoc?