How do I integrate sec(x) sin(nx) over a specific interval?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around integrating the function sec(x) sin(nx) over the interval from -3/2 Pi to 1/2 Pi. Participants explore the properties of the secant function and its periodicity, as well as the implications of the Dirichlet Theorem on the integration process.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants consider the periodic nature of sec(x) and its implications for the integral. Some question whether the integral evaluates to zero for even n and is indeterminate for odd n. Others suggest expressing sec(x) in terms of exponential functions to facilitate integration. There is also a mention of a potential misidentification of the integrand, which could affect the outcome.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various interpretations being explored regarding the integral's behavior based on the parity of n. Some participants have provided insights based on computational tools, while others are questioning the setup and assumptions related to the integrand.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the Dirichlet Theorem and its relevance to the problem, as well as concerns about the integral being indeterminate due to the nature of the functions involved. The discussion also reflects on the implications of integrating over a specific range that includes points of discontinuity.

mathskier
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So I know that sec(x) has period 2Pi, and it's even so I don't need to figure out coefficients for bn.

Let's take the limits of the integral to go from -3/2 Pi to 1/2 Pi. How do I integrate sec(x) sin(nx) dx?! Am I on the right path?

PS: I know that this doesn't satisfy the Dirichlet Theorem, but the textbook I'm using still says to compute it.
 
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Seems to me that integral is zero for n even and indeterminate for n odd.
 
well since [itex]\sec(x) = 1/\cos(x)[/itex] then i think you can express the cosine functions, both on the top and on the bottom as exponentials with imaginary argument. i think you can get to an integral that looks like

[tex]c_n = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{-\pi}^{+\pi} \frac{2}{e^{i (n+1) x}+e^{i (n-1) x}} \ dx[/tex]

i think you can find an antiderivative of that. might still come out as indeterminate. but that's the integral you have to solve.
 
Last edited:
haruspex said:
Seems to me that integral is zero for n even and indeterminate for n odd.
I evaluated the first few odd n integrals using Mathematica, and it looks like ##a_{2n+1} = (-1)^n 2\pi##.
 
vela said:
I evaluated the first few odd n integrals using Mathematica, and it looks like ##a_{2n+1} = (-1)^n 2\pi##.
The reason I thought it indeterminate is that integrating over a 2π range effectively cancels a +∞ with a -∞. E.g. with n=1, it's the integral of tan, which is log cos. An interval that spans π/2 will appear to give a sensible answer, but in reality it's undefined.
 
mathskier indicated the wrong integrand. It should be sec x cos(nx), which is the integrand I used.
 
vela said:
mathskier indicated the wrong integrand. It should be sec x cos(nx), which is the integrand I used.
That certainly makes a difference. It's not hard to show that the integral of sec x cos(nx) over a 2pi range is the negative of that of sec x cos((n-2)x), for n > 2.
 

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