Calculate the derivative directly:
[itex]\frac{d}{dx}\bigg(\frac{y_2}{y_1}\bigg)=\frac{y_2'y_1-y_2y_1'}{y_1^2}[\latex]<br />
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If we look at the numerator, it is 0. Therefore <br />
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[itex]\frac{d}{dx}\bigg(\frac{y_2}{y_1}\bigg)=0[\latex]<br />
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Therefore<br />
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[itex]\bigg(\frac{y_2}{y_1}\bigg)=C for all x[\latex]<br />
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Where C is some constant.<br />
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Look at the boundery condition at x_0, <br />
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[itex]\bigg(\frac{y_2(x_0)}{y_1(x_0)}\bigg)=1, as y_1(x_0)=y_2(x_0)[\latex]<br />
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thus C=1,<br />
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Thus <br />
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[itex]\bigg(\frac{y_2}{y_1}\bigg)=1 for all x [\latex]<br />
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Which implies that y_1=y_2 for all x!<br />
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I can't get the latex to work...<br />
But I hope the point is clear.[/itex][/itex][/itex][/itex][/itex]