How Do Limit and Integral Methods Relate for Finding Area Under a Curve?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between the limit method and the direct integral method for finding the area under a curve, within the context of integration. The original poster is exploring how these two methods yield the same result and is seeking clarification on the fundamental theorem of calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the fundamental theorem of calculus and its implications for understanding integration. The original poster questions the representation of an antiderivative with upper and lower bounds in definite integrals. Others provide interpretations and examples to clarify these concepts.

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants providing insights and interpretations regarding the fundamental theorem of calculus. There is an exchange of ideas about the nature of antiderivatives and definite integrals, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion regarding specific aspects of the fundamental theorem of calculus and its proof, particularly in relation to the notation and the role of constants in integration.

vanmaiden
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Homework Statement


I am in the process of studying integration and finding the areas under curves. So far, I know of two methods of finding the area under a curve: the limit method and the direct integral method. Could someone explain the relationship between these two methods?

Homework Equations


\intf(x) dx = F(x)|^{b}_{a} = F(b) - F(a) = Area

lim_{n→∞} \sum^{n}_{i = 1} f(x_{i})Δx = Area

The Attempt at a Solution


I noticed in the direct integration method for finding the area under a curve that the area under the curve is equal to the change in y of a more complicated function: the integral. I graphed it out on my calculator and I don't see exactly how this works.

lim_{n→∞} \sum^{n}_{i = 1} f(x_{i})Δx = Δy of F(x) = Area

I'm trying to seek an explanation as to why the limit method yields the same result as the direct integral method.
 
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LCKurtz said:
That is the fundamental theorem of calculus. You might start by reading here:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_calculus

Ah yes, I read through a bit of it. I'm rather confused on the proof for the First Fundamental Theorem of Calculus where it is
F(x) = \int^{x}_{a}f(t) dt
I've just never seen an antiderivative represented in this way before. Could you interpret this for me? Why does an antiderivative have an upper and lower bound?
 
Last edited:


vanmaiden said:
Ah yes, I read through a bit of it. I'm rather confused on the proof for the First Fundamental Theorem of Calculus where it is
F(x) = \int^{x}_{a}f(t) dt
I've just never seen an antiderivative represented in this way before. Could you interpret this for me? Why does an antiderivative have an upper and lower bound?

Let's say you have a function f(x) and its antiderivative F(x) so you might have written F(x)=\int f(x)\, dx + C where F'(x) = f(x). If you were going a definite integral you would write \int_a^b f(x)\,dx = (F(x)+C)|_a^b = F(b) - F(a) and the C is usually omitted since it cancels out anyway.

Now the x in that definite integral is a dummy variable, not affecting the answer, so that line could as well have been written\int_a^b f(t)\,dt = F(t)|_a^b = F(b) - F(a) Since this is true for any a and b, let's choose to let b be a variable x:\int_a^x f(t)\,dt = F(t)|_a^x = F(x) - F(a) Since these are equal you still have F'(x) = f(x) so the left side is an antiderivative of f(x). Since a can be anything, the F(a) is like the constant of integration in our first equation.

Does that help answer your question?
 


LCKurtz said:
Since a can be anything, the F(a) is like the constant of integration in our first equation.

Does that help answer your question?

Yes! So, to make sure I have this correct, F(a) = C in this case, correct?
 


vanmaiden said:
Yes! So, to make sure I have this correct, F(a) = C in this case, correct?

I would leave it as F(a). Here's an example. Suppose you are trying to find the function whose derivative is x2 and whose value at x = 0 is 4. You might do it this way:f(x) = \int x^2\, dx =\frac {x^3}{3}+C Then you plug in x = 0 to require that f(0) = 4 and that tells you that C = 4 so your answer isf(x) = \frac{x^3} 3+4 Alternatively you could have solved the problem this way:f(x)-f(0)=\int_0^x t^2\, dt = \frac{t^3} 3 |_0^x =\frac {x^3} 3 where f(0) = 4, which you could have put in in the first place. Same answer, slightly different methods.
 


If f(0) = 4, then shouldn't f(x) - f(0) = \frac{x^{3}}{3} - 4?
 


vanmaiden said:
If f(0) = 4, then shouldn't f(x) - f(0) = \frac{x^{3}}{3} - 4?

f(x) - 4 = \frac{x^3} 3
 

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