How Do You Determine the Orthogonal Complement in a Linear Algebra Problem?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the orthogonal complement of a self-adjoint endomorphism in a three-dimensional space, specifically for the operator defined as ## f : E^3 → E^3## with kernel ##ker(f) = L((1, 2, 1)##. The eigenvalues given are ##λ_1 = 1## and ##λ_2 = 2##, leading to the conclusion that ##λ_3 = 0##. The orthogonal complement is expressed as ##(ker(f))^⊥ = L((1, 0, -1), (a, b, c))##, where the form ##(α, β, -α - 2β)## arises from the requirement that the eigenvectors corresponding to different eigenvalues of a self-adjoint operator are orthogonal.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of self-adjoint operators in linear algebra
  • Knowledge of eigenvalues and eigenvectors
  • Familiarity with orthogonal complements in vector spaces
  • Basic proficiency in working with linear transformations in ##E^3##
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  • Study the properties of self-adjoint operators in linear algebra
  • Learn how to compute eigenvalues and eigenvectors for matrices
  • Explore the concept of orthogonal complements in vector spaces
  • Investigate the Gram-Schmidt process for orthogonalization of vectors
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Students and educators in linear algebra, mathematicians working with vector spaces, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of self-adjoint operators and their properties.

Felafel
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Homework Statement


Write a selfadjoint endomorphism ## f : E^3 → E^3## such that ##ker(f ) =
L((1, 2, 1)) ## and ## λ_1 = 1, λ_2 = 2## are eigenvalues of f


The Attempt at a Solution



I know ##λ_3=0## because ́##ker(f ) ≠ {(0, 0, 0)}## and ## (ker(f ))^⊥ = (V0 )^⊥ = V1 ⊕ V2 ## due to the definition of selfadjoint.
Then, my book gives the solution:
##(ker(f ))^⊥ = (L((1, 2, 1))^⊥ = {(α, β, −α − 2β) | α, β ∈ R} = L((1, 0, −1), (a, b, c))##
but i don't understand where did it get that (α, β, −α − 2β) from.
Could you please help me? thanks in advance :)
 
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Felafel said:

Homework Statement


Write a selfadjoint endomorphism ## f : E^3 → E^3## such that ##ker(f ) =
L((1, 2, 1)) ## and ## λ_1 = 1, λ_2 = 2## are eigenvalues of f

The Attempt at a Solution



I know ##λ_3=0## because ́##ker(f ) ≠ {(0, 0, 0)}## and ## (ker(f ))^⊥ = (V0 )^⊥ = V1 ⊕ V2 ## due to the definition of selfadjoint.
Then, my book gives the solution:
##(ker(f ))^⊥ = (L((1, 2, 1))^⊥ = {(α, β, −α − 2β) | α, β ∈ R} = L((1, 0, −1), (a, b, c))##
but i don't understand where did it get that (α, β, −α − 2β) from.
Could you please help me? thanks in advance :)

(α, β, −α − 2β) is the subspace orthogonal to (1,2,1). You know that the eigenvectors of a self adjoint operator corresponding to different eigenvectors are orthogonal, yes? So you'll have to pick the other two eigenvectors from that space.
 
Last edited:

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