mathwonk
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to me, integral means limit of riemann sums, so integral of 1/x means just that. i.e. it means area under the graPH OF Y = 1/X.
now it is a theorem that this area function has a derivative which equals 1/x, and it is also a theorem that this area functioin behaves like a logarith, hence must be one, but all this is a long story.
By the way I love the following proof:
"Now if the limit exists, which you can see it clearly does by looking at the graph,"
I had always though it difficult to prove this limit exists! Another equivalent argument would be perhaps "which is clear from sticking your finger into the wind,.."
now it is a theorem that this area function has a derivative which equals 1/x, and it is also a theorem that this area functioin behaves like a logarith, hence must be one, but all this is a long story.
By the way I love the following proof:
"Now if the limit exists, which you can see it clearly does by looking at the graph,"
I had always though it difficult to prove this limit exists! Another equivalent argument would be perhaps "which is clear from sticking your finger into the wind,.."
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