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If it were, what would be holding the blocks up?judas_priest said:I have a general question, if a vertical simple pulley had two blocks both of same mass, would the tension in the string be zero?
The discussion focuses on the relationship between the accelerations of two blocks, m1 and m2, in a frictionless pulley system. When block m1 moves downward by a distance x, block m2 moves to the left by a distance x, leading to the conclusion that the acceleration of block m2 is twice that of block m1, expressed as a1 = 2a2. The participants clarify the constraints of the system, emphasizing that the pulley can move while maintaining the string's fixed length, which is crucial for understanding the motion dynamics. The correct relationship between the accelerations is established as a1 = 2a2, confirming the initial confusion regarding the movement of the blocks.
PREREQUISITESStudents studying physics, particularly those focusing on mechanics, as well as educators and anyone interested in understanding the dynamics of pulley systems and acceleration relationships in multi-body setups.
If it were, what would be holding the blocks up?judas_priest said:I have a general question, if a vertical simple pulley had two blocks both of same mass, would the tension in the string be zero?
If the surface of the pulley is smooth then of course the string could slide over the surface. But with real pulleys that doesn't happen. The friction of pulley on its axle is much less than the friction of string on pulley (usually).James Faraday said:Basically, could I crudely imagine it like this, with the situation drawn upside down (see attachment)? If so, why do we necessarily need the pulley to rotate (as in attachment)? Why couldn't the pulley simply glide forward and have the string roll over its surface without the pulley having to rotate in order to make it roll? Thanks.
judas_priest said:Exactly what I thought. So would it be mg or 2mg?
Poetria said:Hi, guys,
Could you tell me if I am on the right track:
in this problem the magnitude of the acceleration of block m1 would be:
g*(m1/m2)?
m1*g-(m2*2*g)/2 [if T=T/2)[/QUOTE]
Consider what that would imply if m1<m2.
Instead of guessing, just write out the ##\Sigma F = ma## equation for each mass.
Where does that term come from?Poetria said:m2*2g
That's correct. It's the m2*g term that I asked about.Poetria said:I thought that for the mass 2 acceleration =2a.
a - acceleration of the mass 1
Well, it is suspect. I will think of it.
I don't understand where that comes from.Poetria said:m(1)*g-m(1)*(g-a) + T/2=m(2)*2*a