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If it were, what would be holding the blocks up?judas_priest said:I have a general question, if a vertical simple pulley had two blocks both of same mass, would the tension in the string be zero?
The discussion revolves around a frictionless pulley system involving two blocks, m1 and m2. The original poster seeks to understand the relationship between the accelerations of the two blocks as m1 moves downward. Participants explore the implications of the pulley setup and the constraints imposed by the string's fixed endpoints.
The conversation is ongoing, with participants actively questioning assumptions about the system's mechanics. Some have offered insights into the relationships between the movements of the blocks and the pulley, while others express confusion regarding the constraints and the physical behavior of the system.
Participants note potential constraints, such as the fixed endpoints of the string and the implications of the pulley being massless. There is also discussion about the conditions under which the blocks might or might not move, depending on their masses.
If it were, what would be holding the blocks up?judas_priest said:I have a general question, if a vertical simple pulley had two blocks both of same mass, would the tension in the string be zero?
If the surface of the pulley is smooth then of course the string could slide over the surface. But with real pulleys that doesn't happen. The friction of pulley on its axle is much less than the friction of string on pulley (usually).James Faraday said:Basically, could I crudely imagine it like this, with the situation drawn upside down (see attachment)? If so, why do we necessarily need the pulley to rotate (as in attachment)? Why couldn't the pulley simply glide forward and have the string roll over its surface without the pulley having to rotate in order to make it roll? Thanks.
judas_priest said:Exactly what I thought. So would it be mg or 2mg?
Poetria said:Hi, guys,
Could you tell me if I am on the right track:
in this problem the magnitude of the acceleration of block m1 would be:
g*(m1/m2)?
m1*g-(m2*2*g)/2 [if T=T/2)[/QUOTE]
Consider what that would imply if m1<m2.
Instead of guessing, just write out the ##\Sigma F = ma## equation for each mass.
Where does that term come from?Poetria said:m2*2g
That's correct. It's the m2*g term that I asked about.Poetria said:I thought that for the mass 2 acceleration =2a.
a - acceleration of the mass 1
Well, it is suspect. I will think of it.
I don't understand where that comes from.Poetria said:m(1)*g-m(1)*(g-a) + T/2=m(2)*2*a