How Does Fourier Analysis Reveal the Series Expansion of Coth(pi)?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the relationship of coth(π) with a series expansion involving Fourier analysis. The original poster presents an equation involving coth(π) and attempts to connect it with the Fourier expansion of e^x, while also expressing frustration over the complexity of the algebra involved.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the Fourier expansion of e^x and its application to the problem at hand. There are attempts to clarify the notation and structure of the equations presented, with some questioning the correctness of the original poster's expressions.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of the Fourier series and its convergence properties, particularly at the point x=π. Some participants provide hints and ask clarifying questions, while others express confusion about the notation and the steps taken in the algebra.

Contextual Notes

Participants note issues with missing parentheses and variable consistency in the equations. There is also mention of a discontinuity in the Fourier series at x=π, which may affect the interpretation of the results.

Ratpigeon
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Homework Statement



show coth(\pi)=1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

Homework Equations


The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)


The Attempt at a Solution


I subbed in
Coth(Pi)=1+e^-pi/sinh(pi) =1+1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

But this is wrong because of the one out the front - I know that needs to stay there, which means I somehow need to stick a -sinh(pi) into the front of my Fourier series of e^pi I would say that it would be my term for n= zero, but I already took care of that one, which was sinh(pi)/pi...
Please help - I've spent about fifteen pages on the algebra for this and I'm getting really sick of the stupid question...
 
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Ratpigeon said:

Homework Statement



show coth(\pi)=1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

Homework Equations


The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)
You're missing closing parentheses and have two index variables, m and n, so I'm not sure what you meant to write exactly. Did you mean
$$\frac{\sinh \pi}{\pi}\left(1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{2(-1)^n}{1+n^2}(\cos nx - n\sin nx)\right)?$$

The Attempt at a Solution


I subbed in
Coth(Pi)=1+e^-pi/sinh(pi) =1+1/\pi (1+2 \sum\inftyn=1 (1/(1+n^2)

But this is wrong because of the one out the front - I know that needs to stay there, which means I somehow need to stick a -sinh(pi) into the front of my Fourier series of e^pi I would say that it would be my term for n= zero, but I already took care of that one, which was sinh(pi)/pi...
Please help - I've spent about fifteen pages on the algebra for this and I'm getting really sick of the stupid question...
How'd you come up with ##\coth \pi = 1+\frac{e^{-\pi}}{\sinh \pi}##?
 
Last edited:
Coth(\pi) =(e\pi+e-\pi)/(e\pi-e-\pi)

which equals
1+2e-\pi/(e\pi-e-\pi)
which equals
1+2e^pi/2sinh(pi)
 
Ratpigeon said:
The Fourier expansion of e^x is
Sinh(\pi)/\pi(1+\sum 2(-1)^m/(1+n^2) (cos(mx)-n sin(nx)

As vela pointed out, this makes no sense. What is the actual Fourier series expansion of e^x?
 
Last edited:
It's the one that vela used - I usually use n's but the lecturer uses m's so it's a bit messed up, and they are both standing for the same thing. And the e^pi is a typo - I have it right in my working...
I've found another page that uses this as the Fourier expansion of e^x, so I'm fairly sure that it's right (after making all the indeces the same)
 
Hint: What does your Fourier series converge to when you set ##x=\pi##? Keep in mind there's a discontinuity there.
 
It'll be... halfway between the limit of the Fourier series at Pi and -pi?
Which means...
1/2(e^pi+e^-pi)=Sn(+/-pi)?
 
I don't know what you mean by "Sn(+/-pi)", but yeah, it'll be the average.
 
And that let's me calculate e^pi+e^-pi from my Fourier series at Pi; but how do I get e^pi-e^-pi for the denominator then?
 
  • #10
Here's another hint: What's ##\cosh \pi## equal to?
 
  • #11
wait, no, I got it. The denominator is 2 sinh(pi) and the numerator is twice the Fourier series at Pi - which is sinH(pi) multiplied by the series I want.
Thanks!
:)
 

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