- #1

joneall

Gold Member

- 67

- 14

My question is simple: How?

I have gone back thru the math. Gauge invariance allows us to use the Lorenz gauge with the vector and scalar potentials (I find these equations easier to visualize than the relativistic ones with tensors), which when used with Maxwell's equations (the ones with sources) to discover that the potentials obey wave equations with sources. So the wave equations + the Lorenz gauge are equivalent to Maxwell's equations. It seems to me this is a long way from Krauss's statement.

Or maybe I am expecting too much.

(Btw, is there a page somewhere showing how to code formulas on this forum?)