JM said:
By Taylor and Wheeler a proper clock is present at the place and time of two events.
OK, now I see what's going on. I did a search and found this reference to Taylor and Wheeler's
Spacetime Physics where they mention a proper clock on page 160:
http://books.google.com/books?id=PDA8YcvMc_QC&pg=PA160&dq#v=onepage&q&f=false
However, they define a proper clock on page 10 which is not available online [at least it wasn't yesterday, today it is?] so I checked the book out of the library and what they mean by a proper clock is one that travels between two events at a constant speed (without regard to any frame). In other words, it is measuring the frame invariant spacetime interval but this can only work for timelike intervals.
JM said:
This places a restriction on the clock to be considered, compared to the many clocks envisioned to be in the moving frame. For a particular set of events there may not be any proper clocks. ( Leaving DaleSpams ideas to later) With this restriction the standard result makes sense.
The restriction they are talking about is when the spacetime interval for the two events are spacelike, meaning that a clock would have to travel at faster than the speed of light to get from one event to the other. Instead, this interval is measured with a rigid ruler between the two events in a frame in which the events occur at the same time. They don't, however, call this a proper ruler.
JM said:
As I mentioned above, the phrase 'moving clocks run slow' implies that all the moiving clocks have t' < t for any arrangement of the events given by x,t. The phrase 'proper clocks run slow' acknowledges the restriction to a single clock moving between two events.
JM
Actually, although that single clock moving between two events at a constant speed is measuring the invariant spacetime interval, it can also be measured in a frame in which the clock is at rest and then it becomes identical to a co-ordinate clock. Look at page 160 of the link to the book above. There you will see "the frame clock is the proper clock". They use the term "frame clock" to mean "co-ordinate clock". So in this case, when the velocity is zero (clock is at rest, the events occur at the same place), gamma is one and so the "proper clock" never runs slow in the frame in which it is at rest. But in other frames it can have a speed other than zero and so can run slower than a co-ordinate clock in that other frame.
But this unique definition of a "proper clock" is not what we normally mean by proper time because we may want to have a clock that accelerates between the two events. If you look up the wikipedia article on "proper time", you will see that it makes the point:
An accelerated clock will measure a smaller elapsed time between two events than that measured by a non-accelerated (inertial) clock between the same two events.
Now since Taylor and Wheeler's "proper clock" can never accelerate, it will measure a greater time and therefore run faster than any other clock that accelerates between the two events.
I hope this clears up the confusion.