Vanessa23 said:
Normally buoyancy force comes into play when a mass is suspended by a spring into the fluid. Here I believe that the ball is held in place and the scale does not change, so there is no buoyancy force.
Not so. There is definitely a buoyant force acting on the submerged ball, as usual. It equals rho_f*V*g, just like you would expect.
The question is whether the scale reading changes. But to answer that, you must take
everything into account.
The only thing keeping the ball where it is in the fluid is the rigid rod, so the force applied by the rod is equal and opposite to the force applied by the ball since there is no buoyancy force. Therefore, the force applied by the rod would just be negative the weight.
No. The forces on the submerged ball are:
(1) Its weight, mg
down.
(2) The buoyant force, rho_f*V*g
up.
(3) The force from the rod, which must be mg - rho_f*V*g
up.
These three forces must add to zero, since the ball is in equilibrium.
So basically in this whole situation you treat the beaker of fluid as one system and the ball+rod as a separate system because inserting the ball has no affect on either system. By that I mean that the scale doesn't change and the fluid does not affect the ball and rod.
It just seems odd that buoyancy wouldn't factor in...
There are two ways to solve this problem. An easy way (if you spot it) and a "hard" way. Let's do the hard way first.
We start with the original weight of the beaker of fluid: W
Add the weight of the ball: mg
Subtract the weight of the fluid that over flowed: -rho_f*V*g
Subtract the upward force exerted by the rod on the system: -(mg - rho_f*V*g)
Add them all up and you get W (thus no change in the scale weight), an interesting result.
The easy way is just to realize that the fluid pressure at the bottom of the beaker doesn't change when you add the ball: The fluid height remains the same. The amount of fluid lost
just exactly balances the added force of the ball on the fluid (the buoyant force). Interesting!