How Does the Klein-Gordon Hamiltonian Define the Evolution of Field Variables?

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SUMMARY

The Klein-Gordon Hamiltonian is defined as H = ∫ d³x (1/2)(π²(x) + (∇φ(x))² - m²φ²(x)). The evolution equation for the field variable φ(x) is derived using the Poisson bracket, resulting in the expression ˙φ(x) = π(x). The integration of Dirac distributions is confirmed to be valid, allowing the simplification of the time derivative of the field to its conjugate momentum. This discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between field variables and their conjugate momenta in field theory.

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  • Understanding of the Klein-Gordon Hamiltonian formulation
  • Familiarity with Poisson brackets in classical mechanics
  • Knowledge of Dirac delta functions and distributions
  • Basic concepts of field theory and conjugate momenta
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shoehorn
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Suppose that we take the Klein-Gordon Hamiltonian to be of the form

[tex]H = \int d^3x \, \mathcal{H}(x) = \frac{1}{2}\int d^3x\, (\pi^2(x) + (\nabla\phi(x))^2- m^2\phi^2(x))[/tex]

If we want to compute, say, the evolution equation for [itex]\phi(x)[/itex] we use the Poisson bracket:

[tex]\dot{\phi}(x) = \{\phi(x),H\} = \int d^3x'\,\{\phi(x),\mathcal{H}(x')\}[/tex]

So, if we recall that the definition of the Poisson bracket for some functionals [itex]F[\phi,\pi;x)[/itex], [itex]G[\phi,\pi;x)[/itex] is

[tex]\{F,G\} \equiv \int d^3y\,\left( \frac{\delta F}{\delta \phi(y)}\frac{\delta G}{\delta\pi(y)} - \frac{\delta F}{\delta\pi(y)}\frac{\delta G}{\delta\phi(y)}\right)[/tex]

we then have

[tex]\dot{\phi}(x) = \int d^3x'\, \int d^3y \frac{\delta\phi(x)}{\delta\phi(y)}\frac{\delta\mathcal{H}(x')}{\delta\pi(y)}<br /> = \int d^3x' \int d^3y\, \delta^{(3)}(x-y)\pi(x')\delta^{(3)}(x'-y)[/tex]
[tex]=\int d^3x'\,\pi(x')\int d^3y\delta^{(3)}(x-y)\delta^{(3)}(x'-y)[/tex]

The question I have is whether or not I can integrate the dirac distributions as follows:

[tex]\int d^3x'\,\pi(x')\int d^3y\delta^{(3)}(x-y)\delta^{(3)}(x'-y)<br /> = \int d^3x'\,\pi(x')\delta^{(3)}(x-x')[/tex]

so as to give me [itex]\dot{\phi}(x) = \pi(x)[/itex]? Have I got this right?
 
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It might be a bit better to do the [itex]x'[/itex] integration first. Then, you don't have to use a delta function to evaluate a delta. In the standard theory of distributions, products of distributions aren't defined.
 
There Are no problems with the two deltas product cause they are evaluated at different points. (x-y) and (x'-y). The theory of distributions see Schwarz (a fields medal) says that the problem is doing this inner product (d(x)*d(x),f(x)) where d stand for the delta compact support distributions. and these integral is obviously f(0)*infinite or some not well defined value.
You got it right shoeron: the time derivative of field (not only scalars field) is its conjugate momentum. It is usefull to remebere in fields theory
 

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