We just started going over line integrals in calculus, and have been told that the integral over any closed surface is 0. What I don't get is then why can we do the line integral of a circle to get 2##\pi##r? Since a circle is a closed surface, shouldn't the line integral then be 0?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# How is a line integral over any closed surface 0?

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