I was going like that because it looks like my school books equations, but according to
@erobz :Didn't understand it was a dot product because nothing was written as a vector
I will suppose ##F_B## and ##d\theta## to be vectorsI used this to make the integralThe ODE solution would give me ##x(t)## for every ##t## but I only need the stopping distance actually
So with a little rework :
$$\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}M{v_0}^2 + I{\omega_0}^2 = \frac{1}{2}Mv^2 + I\omega^2 - 2\int F_B \cdot dx$$
Because ##F_B## acts in the opposite direction of ##d\theta##, ##F_B \cdot R_\text{ext}d\theta = -F_BR_\text{ext}##
So I have now
$$\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}M{v_0}^2 + I{\omega_0}^2 = \frac{1}{2}Mv^2 + I\omega^2 - 2\int -F_BR_\text{ext}$$
Problem is, I don't have an "integrator" (don't know how to call it) in my integral because ##d\theta## is gone
If I integrate anyway by ##\theta## :
$$\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}M{v_0}^2 + I{\omega_0}^2 = \frac{1}{2}Mv^2 + I\omega^2 + 2F_BR_\text{ext}\theta$$
I feel so wrong and so sorry for bothering you and taking your time because of my incompetence...