How to convert an alternating sum into a positive sum?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the identities ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{12}## and ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}## using the Fourier series representation. The user successfully derives the first identity by setting ##x=0## in the Fourier series equation and manipulating the resulting expression. The user seeks guidance on proving the second identity and considers using the relationship between the alternating sum and the non-alternating sum.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and their applications
  • Knowledge of calculus, specifically series convergence
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities and their manipulation
  • Basic knowledge of limits and summation techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Basel problem and its implications for series
  • Learn about the properties of alternating series and their convergence
  • Explore the relationship between Fourier series and trigonometric functions
  • Investigate techniques for manipulating series, such as term rearrangement
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Students of calculus, mathematicians interested in series convergence, and anyone studying Fourier analysis or seeking to understand the properties of alternating sums.

Eclair_de_XII
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Homework Statement


"Given that ##FS f(x)=\frac{L^2}{3}+(\frac{2L}{\pi})^2⋅\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}cos(\frac{n\pi}{L}x)##, prove that ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{12}## and ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{6}##.

Homework Equations


##FS f(x) = f(x) = x^2##

The Attempt at a Solution


Setting ##x=0##, we have here ##f(0)=0## and ##FS f(x)=\frac{L^2}{3}+(\frac{2L}{\pi})^2⋅\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}=0##. Now we have ##-\frac{L^2}{3}=\frac{4L^2}{\pi^2}⋅\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}##, so ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}=-\frac{\pi^2}{12}##, or ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{12}##.

I basically got the first half. I took Calculus II over a year ago, and cannot exactly remember how to do this. Either that, or I would prove that the value of ##\frac{1}{4} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{24}## and add two of that to the first part of the problem. Can anyone point me in the right direction as to what I should do?
 
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Choose values of ##x## and ##L## so that the cosine is equal to ##(-1)^n##.
 
Oh, so set ##x=L##. Thanks!
 

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