How to deal with this sum complex analysis?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the evaluation of the sum $$ (4)\cdot\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\coth(\pi n)}{n^3} $$ using residue theory in complex analysis. Participants clarify that the sum of residues is necessary to compute the integral, and the factor of $$ 2\pi i $$ cancels out due to the limit of the contour integral being zero as $$ n \to \infty $$. The residues at positive and negative poles are equivalent, allowing for simplification by summing only over positive integers.

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Amad27
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Homework Statement



ceme4.png


Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution



As you see in the solution, I am confused as to why the sum of residues is required.

My question is the sum:

$$(4)\cdot\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\coth(\pi n)}{n^3}$$

Question #1:

-Why is the beginning n=1 the residue is for all $$n \in (-\infty, \infty)$$ so the beginning of the sum should be $$n=-\infty$$ right?

Question #2:

Also in the residue theorem, it states:

$$\oint_{C} f(z) dz = (2\pi i)(\sum \text{Res})$$

Where is the 2pi(i) gone in the solution of theirs?

Thanks!
 
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Amad27 said:

The Attempt at a Solution



As you see in the solution, I am confused as to why the sum of residues is required.

My question is the sum:

$$(4)\cdot\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{\coth(\pi n)}{n^3}$$

Question #1:

-Why is the beginning n=1 the residue is for all $$n \in (-\infty, \infty)$$ so the beginning of the sum should be $$n=-\infty$$ right?

Question #2:

Also in the residue theorem, it states:

$$\oint_{C} f(z) dz = (2\pi i)(\sum \text{Res})$$

Where is the 2pi(i) gone in the solution of theirs?

Thanks!

The limit of the contour integral is 0 as n->infinity. So the sum of all of the pole residues is 0. So ##2 \pi i## is a common factor of all of the residues. It cancels. The residue at 0 is the ##-7 \pi^3/45## part. For n>0 the residue is the same at n, -n, ni and -ni. So you can sum them all together by adding a factor of 4. The means you only have to sum over n>0.
 

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